Once closing happens, the house now belongs to the buyer. If the seller asks to rent back for a period of time, and the seller does any damage to the house prior to the buyer taking occupancy, does the buyer have any recourse?


In some (or many) cases, one of the parties might be asked to pay all of the closing costs at the table. Are there any particular closing costs of the seller that the buyer cannot pay, or of the buyer that the seller cannot pay?